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Understanding MOC Requirements
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April 11-13, 2019
Internal Medicine Meeting 2019
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MKSAP has been trusted by internists since 1967 as the best resource for updating knowledge. MKSAP 17, available in Complete, Digital, and Print packages, consists of 11 comprehensive text chapters with related multiple-choice questions. You'll find 1,200 completely new questions to help you identify learning gaps, stay current, and gain the knowledge you need to provide the best possible patient care. MKSAP 17's original and high-quality questions evolve out of case studies and patient scenarios based on the latest evidence.
For more information on MKSAP 17, or to order your copy, visit mksap17.acponline.org.
A 28-year-old man is evaluated for right knee pain that began 2 days ago. He was playing football when he stopped suddenly and pivoted to make a catch. He heard a popping sound and immediately developed severe pain in his right knee. Within 30 minutes, the knee became swollen. Since the injury, he has been able to bear weight, but he has discomfort with ambulation and reports feeling that his right knee is going to buckle. He has also been unable to participate in any further sports activities. Medical history is unremarkable. He takes no medications.
On physical examination, vital signs are normal. BMI is 24. The right knee is swollen with a palpable effusion. There is no overlying erythema, medial or lateral joint line tenderness, or increased laxity with varus and valgus forces. Anterior drawer and Lachman tests are positive. Posterior drawer test is negative.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A: Anterior cruciate ligament tear
B: Lateral collateral ligament tear
C: Medial collateral ligament tear
D: Meniscal tear
Answer and Critique
Back to the March 2018 issue of ACP International